Rav Yosef Engel (Esvan De’Orasayeh principle 19 and
in Beis Haotzer) has a chakirah if a kohan that serves in
the mikdash without the בגדי
כהונה is it a problem in his service or
is the problem in the kohan חסרון בשם כהן או חסרון בעבודה)?) The Gemorah says when the Kohanim are wearing
garments, then they are considered Kohanim, if not they aren’t considered
Kohanim (Sanhedrin 83b and Zevachim 17a.)
The language of the Gemorah indicates that there is something lacking in
the kohen. However, there may be
a possible lacking in the service as well. The Briskor Rav (Zevachim 18a) asks
why doesn’t the Rambam count the mitzvah of the garments of a kohan as
two mitzvot, one for a regular kohan and one for a kohan gadol? He answers that the garments are a mitzvah
vis a via the avodah, not the kohan wearing them, hence it is one mitzvah.
Rav Yosef Engel brings a Or Hachaim that asks what is the Torah
teaching by saying the garments are עָשִׂ֥יתָ בִגְדֵי־קֹ֖דֶשׁ
לְאַֽהֲרֹ֣ן אָחִ֑יךָ לְכָב֖וֹד וּלְתִפְאָֽרֶת, just say the
commandment to make the garments? The
Or Hachaim answers that it teaches us only kohanim have to wear the
garments however, when Moshe served in the first seven days of the mishkan he
didn’t have to wear the priestly garments.
Clearly, he understood the lack of the garments is merely a problem in
the kohen, not in the avodah.
However, Rav Yosef Engel asks how can the Or Hachaim derive this law
from this verse if the Gemorah in Zevachim 18a learns from here that ripped
garments of kehunah are disqualified.
So, what’s bothering the Or Hachaim if the possuk is used for a drasha
already? I don’t understand his
question. The Or Hachaim himself brings
this drasha on the possuk 28:40 וְלִבְנֵ֤י אַֽהֲרֹן֙ תַּֽעֲשֶׂ֣ה כֻתֳּנֹ֔ת
וְעָשִׂ֥יתָ לָהֶ֖ם אַבְנֵטִ֑ים וּמִגְבָּעוֹת֙ תַּֽעֲשֶׂ֣ה לָהֶ֔ם לְכָב֖וֹד וּלְתִפְאָֽרֶת,
he is bothered by the same language in possuk 28:2. The Or Hachaim is bothered by the repetitive
language. That’s why he needs both the drasha
and his commentary. What’s bothering Rav
Yosef Engel?
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