The Ramban holds the מצוה הזאת in (30:11) כִּ֚י הַמִּצְוָ֣ה הַזֹּ֔את אֲשֶׁ֛ר אָנֹכִ֥י מְצַוְּךָ֖ הַיּ֑וֹם לֹא־נִפְלֵ֥את הִוא֙ מִמְּךָ֔ וְלֹ֥א רְחֹקָ֖ה הִֽוא is referring to teshuva. This seems to contradict the Gemorah in
Eruvin (54a) that learns it’s referring to torah (as Rashi says.) However, it may be there is no contradiction
here, rather the two interpretations complement each other. The most ultimate form of teshuva is through
learning torah. The Gemorah says that teshuva done מאהבה is the greatest teshuva. What is the way of expressing אהבת ה'? It is through learning torah. Hence, the greatest form of teshuva is done
through the study of torah. Based upon
this we can understand why Rabbenu Yonah in Shaarei Teshuva (4:16) says that
learning torah is an atonement for חילול ה'. It
is only teshuva of the highest level that can bring כפרה for such a sin and that is accomplished
through learning. (All of this is
explained in Mishnas Yaavetz #54, see there additional sources and proofs.) This is reflected in the Targum Yonason as well in Yeshayahu (1:16.) The possuk says רַֽחֲצוּ֙ הִזַּכּ֔וּ הָסִ֛ירוּ רֹ֥עַ מַעַלְלֵיכֶ֖ם מִנֶּ֣גֶד עֵינָ֑י and the Targum says תּוּבוּ לְאוֹרַיְתָא. We see he explains the removal of sin is through learning.
With this in mind we understand why Chazal made the beracha
in Shemonei Esrei about teshuva start with השיבנו אבינו לתורתך. What does one have to do with another? Torah is necessary for teshuva. This is what the baaleh mussaar understood and the emphasis
in Elul wasn’t on additional mussar, it was on learning torah as demonstrated from this quote from the sefer Kodesh Elul.
See as well this citation in וענפיה ארזי אל
The Tanya in Egeres Hakodesh cites from the Zohar as well
that the highest form of teshuva is learning torah.
The second possuk in the haftorah of Shabbos Teshuva is קְח֤וּ עִמָּכֶם֙ דְּבָרִ֔ים וְשׁ֖וּבוּ אֶל־י״י֑. What
devarim is the possuk referring to?
Most Rishonim understand it’s a reference to vidduy. However, the midrash in parshas Tzaveh
(38:4) understands it’s a reference to the words of Torah. How does the midrash see this as a reference
to Torah and what’s the connection to Torah?
There seems to be a repetition in the first two pessukim of the
haftorah. The first verse already says שׁ֚וּבָה יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל עַ֖ד י״י֣ אלקיך כִּ֥י כָשַׁ֖לְתָּ בַּעֲוֺנֶֽךָ, so what is the idea of teshuva in the latter
half of the second verse adding? Rav Berel Povorski cites the Gemorah (Yoma 86a) that
understands the first possuk is teshuva mayerah where the sins are now
viewed as unintentional misdeeds. That
is the language of ad Hashem.
However, the second verse uses the language of el Hashem indicating
a stronger connection, the teshuva that comes from love of Hashem. The point of the midrash is that teshuva mahavah is accomplished through learning. It is noteworthy to mention the end of the midrash that one
who doesn’t have the capability to learn can pray to Hashem to atone his sins.
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