The Chazon Eish says is that a Beit Din is required to create a monetary obligation. In other words, a rabbi can tell the one obligated to pay that the Torah holds him responsible but he can't create an obligation on the individual to pay. It is a Beit Din only that has the power to create a monetary obligation. What difference does it make if he is the Torah considers him obligated or this is an actual obligation upon him? The Chazon Eish says the נפקא מינה is regarding תפיסה. Only if there is a pesak of Beit Din making one obligated can the other party grab the money that is entitled to them. Without the chiuv on the obligated party, it would be theft to grab what one is owed from them.
Rav Shmuel Rozovski (Chiddushim siman 2) brings a few proofs that even when there is no monetary obligation, 3 judges are still required to form a Beit Din. One of his proofs is from the Mishna at the beginning of Maakot which assumes that it is Beit Din accepting the testimony of witnesses that a kohan is pasul. In that instance there is no monetary obligation, yet a Beit Din is still required to accept the testimony. So why is a Beit Din required?
>>>Only if there is a pesak of Beit Din making one obligated can the other party grab the money that is entitled to them.
ReplyDeleteWhat about kam lei b'de'rabbah minei? There B"D can only be macheyeiv misa or malkos and not mamon, but the damaged party still has a right of tefisa.
>>>Why are three judges required, why can't a rabbi tell the litigants the din the same way he will pasken any rule of issur veheter?
ReplyDeleteBecause it says the word "Elokim" 3x in the parsha of shomrim=dinei mamonos. And maybe according to the opinion that only 1 dayan is needed, in hachi nami, there is no difference. How does the question get off the ground?